If outgoing packets that leave a VPN node contain my endpoint’s IP address - which it must, since how else would it later be routed back to me - how does the location of the VPN exit node spoof my endpoint’s real location? Isn’t it obvious when the receiver inspects the packets what/where the source IP is?

If my endpoint’s IP address is not included in the packets that exit the VPN tunnel, how then does that same node - or other nodes in case of multi hop - route the packets back to my endpoint? Are there perhaps VPN specific identifiers in the packet that only that node knows how to route back to me?

  • slazer2au@lemmy.world
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    17 days ago

    Same way it happens with non VPN setups.

    Network Address Translation. Your personal device is assigned a private IP (likely from RFC1918 or 100.64.0.0/17 range) and that is unique to you for as long as the VPN tunnel is established.

    When the traffic leaves the public VPN endpoint it will be translated into a public address. All the website you are trying to access will do is respond to the public IP and there will be a translation table at the VPN provider saying which private IP to send the traffic.

      • slazer2au@lemmy.world
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        17 days ago

        The temp addresses are internal to the VPN. The public ones are generally static or part of a pool that is shared among all users.